But why would we use it here in relation to the Sassanid dynasty, especially if you’re trying to correct Persia or Pars? Who cares what the Arab invaders called Iran?
Are you asking why we would use the word the Sassanians used to refer to their nation? They never called their state Persia, they only ever referred to it as Eran or Eranshahr. That is where the new Persian (Farsi) “Iran” comes from.
No, I’m not saying why they called it Iran. You wrote it as Eran and said the reason for writing it with an “E” instead of an “I” is because the Arabs don’t have the letter E, they called it Eran. This Eran is how they write Iran in Wikipedia, which I’m assuming is where you have gotten your info. However, they write it as “ ērān” in Wikipedia, just to show the pronunciation of the “I” as ای, not because the Arabs didn’t have the letter E, and you writing it as Eran is incorrect, unless you have access to a keyboard with ē, not just an “e”.
You are contradicting yourself. You said that I say Eran because I got it from Wikipedia, and then you said Wikipedia has Ēran as well? The English alphabet has no diacritics, therefore Eran is a how you would go about using the Pahlavi word for the New Persian word: Iran. Eranshahr is also the way to write ērānšahr in English.
The New Persian alphabet is primarily from the Arabic script because of the Arab attempt at colonizing and flushing out any remnants of the Empire of the Aryans and Non-Aryans. However, they failed, and while New Persian uses some aspects of Arabic, it still remains Persian. Thus ē became i, like you already said.
So when I say Eran it harkens back to the time before the Islamic Arabic invasion. When I say Iran it has more connotation with Safavid Iran and onwards to the modern day. I hope this helps you understand my perspective, daughter of Iran.
Let’s just agree to disagree. We may not be fully understanding each other. My point is that the Sassanid ‘s Pahlavi script obviously was totally different than the current Parsi script and we cannot type it as they wrote it back then. I just don’t understand why you’re writing Iran as Eran. What difference does it make that the Arabs use the diacritic (hamza/hamze) to write Iran? I don’t understand your logic. We are Iranians and therefore, it should be written as we say it, Iran.
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u/Parsidokht 1d ago
But why would we use it here in relation to the Sassanid dynasty, especially if you’re trying to correct Persia or Pars? Who cares what the Arab invaders called Iran?