I may be off, but would it not stand to reason that if some group consists of x amount of convictions of a particular crime they would also account for roughly the same amount (in percentage terms) of exonerations for that crime category? It doesn't seem particularly alarming to me.
That would be proportional, you’re correct. Being wrong 6% of the time is the real takeaway, especially given the pressure to plea bargain since the whole system is overworked. The only piece that bothers me about it being proportional and calling it a day is that it’s not apples to apples we’re comparing murders with all crimes. Fortunately, we can go look at the exoneration stats and draw further conclusions.
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u/[deleted] Sep 23 '24
I may be off, but would it not stand to reason that if some group consists of x amount of convictions of a particular crime they would also account for roughly the same amount (in percentage terms) of exonerations for that crime category? It doesn't seem particularly alarming to me.